2016年7月25日星期一

Oracle 1z1-329 exam & 1z1-329 vce dumps

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Exam Code: 1z1-329
Exam Name: Oracle Global Human Resources Cloud 2016 Implementation Essentials
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Last Update: 07-25,2016
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NO.1 An enterprise operates in a country where contract information is required for employees.What type of employment model can the enterprise use?
A. contract assignment
B. multiple assignments
C. multiple assignments with contracts
D. single assignment
E. single assignment with contracts
Answer: E

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NO.2 As an implementation consultant, you are in the process of building the Enterprise Structure. At the minimum, what are the three options you should be aware of while defining a Business Unit in the application? (Choose three.)
A. A Business Unit performs one or many business functions like Payables invoicing, Payables payments, Procurement, Sales, Marketing etc.
B. A Business Unit performs one or many business functions that can be rolled up in a management hierarchy.
C. A Business unit can process transactions on behalf of many legal entities.
D. A Business unit can process transactions on behalf of many or a single legal entity depending on how the ESC option is set.
Answer: A,B,C

NO.3 Select three correct Workforce Structure definitions. (Choose three.)
A. Department
B. Division
C. Geography
D. Location
E. Facility
F. Country
Answer: A,B,D

1z1-329 Practice Exam  

NO.4 You are implementing the Checklist functionality for one of your customers. The customer wants the checklist template to be allocated to persons automatically. What should you do to achieve the required functionality?
A. Associate the eligibility profile with the checklist template to allocate the checklist to persons
automatically when they satisfy the criteria built in the eligibility profile.
B. Associate the area of responsibility with the checklist template to allocate the checklist to persons
automatically when they are given the specific area of responsibility.
C. Associate a life event with the checklist template to allocate the checklist to persons automatically
when they experience the event.
D. Managers can automatically allocate checklist templates to the persons whom they manage from
Person Gallery
E. Associate the action with the checklist template to allocate the checklist to persons automatically
when they experience the action.
Answer: E

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Exam Code: JN0-1100
Exam Name: Juniper Networks Certified Design Associate (JNCDA)
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Last Update: 07-25,2016
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JN0-1100 braindump
NO.1 Which statement describes a data center?
A. The data center encompasses a broad area that is used to interconnect business locations and resources.
B. The data center typically involves high density topologies with multiple points of access.
C. The data center locally hosts thousands of users with wired connections, all with three to four active devices.
D. The data center houses the computing resources and services used by a company.
Answer: D

JN0-1100 Exam Questions  

NO.2 Your customer is experiencing problems with session drops and high response time. You are asked to provide redesign suggestions to minimize these problems. You examine the applications that are supported by your customer's network to try to identify problem factors. Which two factors are important from an application-driven network impact perspective? (Choose two.)
A. short timers
B. presence of elephant flows
C. use of HTTPS protocols by the application
D. IGP protocols in use
Answer: A,B

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NO.3 Which name is used by a service provider to identify the edge device inside the central office facing the customer?
A. P
B. PE
C. CE
D. LSR
Answer: B

JN0-1100 Exam Questions  

NO.4 Your customer is a government organization with strict security requirements. They want to expand their Layer 2 infrastructure between multiple buildings within the same campus environment. They also want to ensure that no unauthorized devices are connected between the switches in the different buildings. Which solution ensures data security in this environment?
A. Use LACP on all inter-switch connections.
B. Use LLDP on all inter-switch connections.
C. Use PNAC on all inter-switch connections.
D. Use MACsec on all inter-switch connections.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: M70-101
Exam Name: Magento Certified Developer Exam
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Last Update: 07-25,2016
M70-101 Exam PDF Detail: M70-101 Real Questions

NO.1 Which two EAV attribute frontend_input types make use of source models? (Choose two)
A. date
B. select
C. text
D. textarea
E. gallery
F. multiselect
Answer: B,F

M70-101 original questions  

NO.2 Which one of the following API methods exists in Magento?
A. catalog_product_attribute_set.update
B. catalog_product, items
C. catalog_product.info
D. catalog_category.save
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which of the following options would cause a poll/poll collection to load all entities that have been posted during April, 2011?
A. $collection->addAttributeToFilter(*date_posted', array('from' => '2011-04-01', 'to' => 2011-04-30') );
B. $collection->addFieldToSelect(('date_posted', Array('from' => '2011-04-01', 'to' => '2011-04-30') );
C. $collection->addPostDateFilter('2011-04-01', '2011-04-30');
D. $collection->addFieldToFilter('date_posted', array('from' => '2011-04-01', 'to' => '2011-04-30') );
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which method is called on a shipping carrier model to fetch a list of all available shipping methods, along with the rates associated with them, for a quote address?
A. collectRates()
B. getAllowedMethodsO
C. getAvailableRates()
D. getShippingRates ()
E. collectShippingRates()
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 300-460
Exam Name: Implementing and Troubleshooting the Cisco Cloud Infrastructure
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300-460 Training Materials Total Q&A: 60 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 07-25,2016
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Administering Windows Server 2012

  • Published: September 17, 2012
  • Languages: English, Japanese
  • Audiences: IT professionals
  • Technology: Windows Server 2012 R2
  • Credit toward certification: MCP, MCSA, MCSE
Deploy, manage, and maintain servers (15–20%)
Configure File and Print Services (15–20%)
Configure network services and access (15–20%)
Configure a Network Policy Server (NPS) infrastructure (10–15%)
Configure and manage Active Directory (10–15%)
Configure and manage Group Policy (15–20%)

Who should take this exam?


NO.1 Which mechanism is used to find latent failure in memory modules?
A. swapping
B. sniffing
C. scrubbing
D. paging
Answer: C

300-460 pdf   300-460 original questions 
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/products/collateral/servers-unifiedcomputing/ucs-manager/whitepaper-c11-736116.pdf

NO.2 Refer to the exhibit.
Which three commands complete the configuration for this Cisco Nexus 1000V port profile that is assigned to a vmkernel used for VSM control plane? (Choose three.)
A. vmware port-group
B. mtu 9000
C. capability 13control
D. system vlan 119
E. swithchport mode trunk
F. service-policy type qos output vmk-control
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.3 During which process are Cisco UCS UUID, MAC, and WWPN identifiers allocated from the pool?
A. service profile template creation
B. server boot time
C. service profile assignment to a server
D. service profile instantiation
Answer: C

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NO.4 In which two ways can a cloud administrator dynamically increase a VMFS datastore? (Choose two.)
A. Add an extent (LUN).
B. Rescan all hosts to see the current storage and modify the extent.
C. Expand the datastore within the extent.
D. Add a new local storage disk on ESXi and restart VMFS service.
Answer: A,C



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Exam Code: CV0-001
Exam Name: CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam
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CV0-001 VCE Dumps Total Q&A: 389 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 07-25,2016
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CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives
Exam Number: CV0-001
INTRODUCTION
The CompTIA Cloud+ certification is an internationally recognized validation of the knowledge required of IT practitioners working in cloud computing environments.
Test Purpose: This exam will certify that the successful candidate has the knowledge and skills required to understand standard Cloud terminologies/methodologies, to implement, maintain, and deliver cloud technologies and infrastructures (e.g. server, network, storage, and virtualization technologies), and to understand aspects of IT security and use of industry best practices related to cloud implementations and the application of virtualization.
It is recommended for CompTIA Cloud+ candidates to have the following:
CompTIA Network+ and/or CompTIA Storage+ Powered by SNIA, though
CompTIA certifications are not required.
Have at least 24-36 months of work experience in IT networking, network storage, or data center administration.
Familiarity with any major hypervisor technologies for server virtualization, though vendor-specific certifications in virtualization are not required.
The table below lists the domains measured by this examination and the extent to which they are represented.
Domain % of Examination
1.0 Cloud Concepts and Models 12%
2.0 Virtualization 19%
3.0 Infrastructure 21%
4.0 Resource Management 13%
5.0 Security 16%
6.0 Systems Management 11%
7.0 Business Continuity in the Cloud 8%
Total 100%
**Note: The bulleted lists below each objective are not exhaustive lists. Even though they are not included in this document, other examples of technologies, processes or tasks pertaining to each objective may also be included on the exam.
(A list of acronyms used in these objectives appears at the end of this document.)

NO.1 An administrator has been tasked with the collection of all errors and events on the servers.These must be centralized and emailed directly from the central server. Which of the following is the BEST solution?
A. RADIUS server
B. LDAP server
C. SYSLOG server
D. DHCP server
Answer: C

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NO.2 A company has just established a new branch office that needs to connect back to centrally hosted applications for day to day operations. The branch office has noted that access to many
company services are slow and causing a drop in productivity. The company IT department has investigated a plan to improve performance across the link to the branch office without having to pay
for more bandwidth from the Internet Service Provider. This plan includes hardware that after installation will allow for much faster access to day to day business applications. Which of the following terms BEST describes the action taken by the IT department?
A. LAN optimization
B. Bandwidth compression
C. WAN optimization
D. Load balancing
Answer: C

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NO.3 Multipathing software normally chooses favored paths based on which of the following?
A. QoS
B. Caching
C. Latency
D. NICs
Answer: C

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NO.4 Joe, an administrator, is searching through directories on his multi-tenant cloud environment when he notices he is able to access a directory holding another company's data. Which of the following should be implemented to mitigate this issue?
A. Off-premise hosting
B. Hashing
C. Data segregation
D. On-premise hosting
Answer: C

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Exam Code: CISM
Exam Name: Certified Information Security Manager
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
CISM Study Materials Total Q&A: 631 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 07-25,2016
CISM Real Questions Detail: CISM Study Materials

Certified Information Security Manager (CISM)

Enhance your competitive advantage
Demonstrate your information security management expertise.
The uniquely management-focused CISM certification promotes international security practices and recognizes the individual who manages designs, and oversees and assesses an enterprise’s information security.

How to Earn Your CISM

NO.1 Logging is an example of which type of defense against systems compromise?
A. Reaction
B. Containment
C. Detection
D. Recovery
Answer: C

CISM pdf  

NO.2 To achieve effective strategic alignment of security initiatives, it is important that:
A. steering committee leadershipbe selected by rotation.
B. inputs be obtained and consensus achieved between the major organizational units.
C. the business strategybe updated periodically.
D. procedures and standardsbe approved by all departmental heads.
Answer: B

CISM Exam Prep  

NO.3 What is the PRIMARY role of the information security manager in the process of information classification within an organization?
A. Securing information assets in accordance with their classification
B. Checking if information assets have been classified properly
C. Deciding the classification levels applied to the organization's information assets
D. Defining and ratifying the classification structure of information assets
Answer: D

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NO.4 How would an information security manager balance the potentially conflicting requirements of an international organization's security standards and local regulation?
A. Give organization standards preference over local regulations
B. Make the organization aware of those standards where local regulations causes conflicts
C. Negotiate a local version of the organization standards
D. Follow local regulations only
Answer: C

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Exam Code: VCS-272
Exam Name: Administration of Veritas NetBackup 7.6.1
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VCS-272 Practice Test Total Q&A: 105 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 07-25,2016
VCS-272 VCE Dumps Detail: VCS-272 Practice Test

NO.1 An administrator needs to duplicate a backup that completed successfully earlier that same day. How can this be accomplished?
A. locate the original backup from NetBackup Management > Catalog, right click and select duplicate
B. locate the original backup from NetBackup Management > Reports > Images on Media, right click
and select duplicate
C. locate the original backup in the activity monitor, right click and select restart
D. locate the policy for the original backup and initiate a manual backup
Answer: A

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NO.2 A Windows 2008 R2 64-bit client backup job hung. The NetBackup administrator cancelled the job in the Administration Console and restarted the NetBackup Client Service on the client. The administrator initiated another backup of the client, and it also hung. Which NetBackup client process should be terminated to allow new backups to occur?
A. bpcd
B. bpbkar64
C. bpbkar32
D. bpbkar
Answer: C

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NO.3 A NetBackup policy is configured to back up the following paths for a client: D:\stage E:\data
E:\home F:\production
Multistreaming is enabled for the backups, and multiplexing is set to 4. Backup streams are running slowly. Which step should the administrator consider to improve backup performance?
A. increase the number of data buffers
B. increase the multiplexing level
C. back up only one stream from each physical device on the client
D. disable multistreaming
Answer: C

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NO.4 What is the image removal behavior for relocated images from a disk staging storage unit when the high water mark is reached during a backup?
A. NetBackup removes the oldest images until the low water mark is reached.
B. NetBackup removes images alphabetically until the low water mark is reached.
C. NetBackup removes the largest images until the low water mark is reached.
D. NetBackup removes images with the lowest rank data classification until the low water mark is reached.
Answer: A

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Exam Code: RCDD
Exam Name: Registered Communications Distribution Designer
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Last Update: 07-25,2016
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NO.1 What is the International Organization for Standardization/International Electrotechnical Commission ISO/IEC class rating for American National Standards Institute/Telecommunication
Industry Association (ANSI/TIA) Category 5e cable?
A. Class F
B. Class C
C. Class E
D. Class B
E. Class D
Answer: E

NO.2 One of the advantages of using optical fiber in the backbone installation is:
A. Safer to install
B. Has better manufacturer support
C. Immunity to EMI
D. Requires less skill to install
E. More cost effective
Answer: C

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NO.3 The electromagnetic spectrum of visible light lies in the ___________ frequency range of the spectrum.
A. 1 PHz
B. 10 THz
C. 1 GHz
D. 100 GHz
E. 100 PHz
Answer: A

RCDD practice test  

NO.4 You are designing a cabling system for a chemical plant. What type of device is needed to prevent the spread of fire along the cable other than the barrier penetrations?
A. Fire wall
B. Fire stop
C. Fire shield
D. Fire break
Answer: D

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Exam Code: ICBRR
Exam Name: International Certificate in Banking Risk and Regulation (ICBRR)
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ICBRR Practice Questions Total Q&A: 342 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 07-25,2016
ICBRR Practice Test Detail: ICBRR Practice Questions

International Certificate in Banking Risk and Regulation
                 Integrated Risk Management
Section 1: Interest Rate Risk in the Banking Book The Role of the Treasury
 Treasury Risk
 Asset and Liability Management Activities
 Asset and Liability Management (ALM) Risks
 NII Risk in the Banking Book
 Equity Risk in the Banking Book
 Conclusions
 Summary
Section 2: Liquidity Risk in the Banking Book Introduction to Liquidity Risk
 Liquidity Risk Measurement
 Liquidity Risk Management
 Risk Reporting
 Conclusions
Section 3: Bank Capital Management Types of Capital
 Computing Economic Capital
 Components of Capital
 Risk and Return for Financial Instruments
 Risk-based Performance Measurement 


NO.1 Which of the following statements about endogenous and external types of liquidity are accurate?
I. Endogenous liquidity is the liquidity inherent in the bank's assets themselves.
II. External liquidity is the liquidity provided by the bank's liquidity structure to fund its assets and maturing liabilities.
III. External liquidity is the non-contractual and contingent capital supplied by investors to support the bank in times of liquidity stress.
IV. Endogenous liquidity is the same as funding liquidity.
A. I, II
B. I, II, IV
C. II, III
D. I, III
Answer: D

NO.2 Which one of the four following non-statistical risk measures are typically not used to quantify market risk?
A. Net closed positions
B. Convexity
C. Basis point values
D. Option sensitivities
Answer: A

ICBRR test questions   ICBRR Exam Prep  

NO.3 Which one of the following statements regarding collateralized mortgage obligations (CMO) is incorrect?
A. CMOs are generally less risky investment than CDOs.
B. CMOs are asset-backed securities that have pools of collateralized debt obligations (CDOs) as
underlying collateral.
C. CMOs have senior tranches which are considered short-term, low-risk instruments by banks
D. CMOs are pools of mortgages that are divided according to the timing of cash flows.
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which one of the following four statements regarding counterparty credit risk is INCORRECT?
A. The exposure at default can be negatively correlated to probability of default.
B. Dynamic collateral provisions often increase counterparty risk considerably.
C. Counterparty credit risk refers to the inability to realize gains in a contract with a counterparty due
to its default.
D. The exposure at default is variable due to fluctuations in swap valuations.
Answer: D

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